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>My ancient 4chan-tier analysis of the Lynn data where I corrected for convenience sampling turned out to be right on the money.

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>My ancient 4chan-tier analysis of the Lynn data where I corrected for convenience sampling turned out to be right on the money.

Do you have it on hand?

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I think it is possible that historical jewish IQ is significantly higher than current when i consider jewish success in 20th century. Central european(germany, austria, hungary) ashkenazis seem particularly smart.

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Why would Ashkenazi IQ drop significantly? If anything, Ashkenazi IQ should be higher now than it was then, assuming Intelligent Jews were more likely to survive WW2.

It's much more plausible that old IQ estimates like 115 were just completely off.

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Question inspired from reading Raymond Aron’s autobiography. The way he describes it, his parents’ marriage was arranged by their respective families, both belonging to the French Jewish bourgeoisie but from different regions. Could this explain an unusually high level of assortative mating, resulting for instance in one single Hungarian High School having so many Nobel Prizes and scientific geniuses?

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Seb stresses that Jews have the lowest levels of assortative mating at the moment, which drags the amount of outliers down. Historically, a lot of assortative mating has happened and was the norm in most of Europe, as were arranged marriages. It could potentially explain why Jews were more dominantly overrepresented in the first half of the 20 century. For "The Martians", they were a product of high talent and excellent education (Germany and Hungary had a lot of STEM elite universities at the time). I don’t think Hungarian Jews were more strongly overrepresented compared to German ones, but more „flashy“ coming from a more „exotic“ country (for American terms).

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